I just wonder at that formulation and why they felt the need to specify “Arab Muslim” in the question instead of just “Muslim”.
While that is a true statement, an equally true, and perhaps more telling question would be, "Under whose precepts were the Islamic world being run by those Turks? Turkish precepts, or Arab?"
The fact of the matter is, that the entirety of of 'Islamic' society is run under Arab precepts, the origin of the people who are operating under those precepts notwithstanding. Sharia is the written codification of Bedouin Arab societal norms, and has been, even as it is now, being forced upon other peoples as 'the perfect society' under the banner of 'the religion of Islam'.
Islam is *not* a religion per se, although it has a religious component. It is a total package of religion, law, and societal regulations. The 'law' and 'societal regulations' stem directly from Bedouin unwritten codes of antiquity...
This is why the repugnant treatment of fully half of humanity (and the percentage goes *up* from this half) is part and parcel of Islam. Bedouin norms in the treatment of their female population have become codified as an essential part of the total Islamic package through Sharia...
the infowarrior