Answer me this.
Obama got fewer votes this time than the first time. Romney got less votes than McCain. In other words, what does early voting have to do with it? Our side didn’t get out the vote.
It is intuitive to me that Obama would get fewer votes, in fact something like 9 million (?) less than he did back in '08. After all, he was very unpopular and had slipped in percentage among just about every demographic group since '08. Aside from that, many of his '08 supporters probably just stayed home.
It is counterintuitive, however, that Romney would get a couple of million less votes than McCain, given the unpopularity of Obama, the fact that Romney certainly ran a much stronger campaign than McCain, and Romney's stronger debate performance vs. Obama as compared to McCain.
What does early voting have to do with it? We'll never get a statistical breakdown of early voting vs. Election Day voting state by state, but the educated guess is that the early voting, especially in the swing states, went decisively to Zero because of the megafraud with the busloads of multiple-time voters and illegals in highly populated and targeted Dem-controlled cities and counties. In fact, the surmise would be that Romney did win among Election Day voters..
The 'Rats surely did get out the vote: they had their lackeys vote many times, transporting them through the many days of early voting, and had obvious foreigners ineligible to vote in some instances: for example the photo posted here by FReeper patriot08 of Somalians in African garb lining up to vote in Ohio.
My guess is that the announced Romney vote total was artificially low because of (1) votes for him not counted by hacked or phony devices (example would be the "shutouts" or near shutouts in a couple of hundred precincts in places like Philadelphia and Cleveland) and (2) the failure of state and local election officials to get ballots to many overseas military personnel who would have voted Romney in a big majority, among other irregularities.