No, that's not what I said. Racism didn't cause slavery, but it was indeed used to justify the institution. Especially once it started running straight into the principles of the Declaration.
Here is a very good article written about the percentages of whites who owned slaves. Not the amount you said for sure. It lists the amount at 1.4% of whites did.
Don't argue with me. Argue with the 1860 census. Your <1% of whites owning slaves is probably based on the fact that 385,000 Americans (not southerners) owned slaves, which is about 1.4% of white Americans (not white southerners).
However, the 385,000 were the heads of families, in whom the legal title was of course vested. This didn't mean their wives and children were not also slaveowners, which is why the appropriate measure is percentage of families that owned slaves, not percentage of individuals.
The 385,000 number itself would be a pretty good percentage of the adult white males of the South. 6M total, 75% women and children, leaves something around 25% of adult males.
It’s obvious you didn’t read the articles I posted. It is also obvious that you are not quoting my post of 1% being total of slave owners. It is you who are trying to confine the slave owners to Southern states. I did no such thing. I said, as the last article stated, that less whites owned slaves than you said. Post your proof of the percentages you provided. I posted proof that disputes what you said. Read the articles and you’ll see you are wrong. You’re entitled to your own opinion, but you’re not entitled to rewrite history.