“Slavery in the New World and especially in American certainly was.”
How do you explain the number of black property owners who owned slaves then?
Less than 1% of whites owned slaves, but from an article I read a number of years ago, 7% of black free men owned slaves.
This is what is colloquially known as bull puckey.
In the Lower South 36% of white families owned slaves.
In the Upper South 25.3% of all white families owned slaves.
Total percentage for the whole CSA: 30.8%.
In the Union Border States 15.9% of all white families owned slaves.
7% of black free men owned slaves.
Possible, though I doubt it. Reference, please.
I also fail to see how it is relevant. Black men enslaving blacks (or whites, or any other color) is every bit as evil.
I believe the majority of southern free blacks who owned slaves were family members. Here’s what would happen.
A black man might be freed, then spend years gradually saving the money to buy his wife and children. When he succeeded, the often large fees associated with emancipation (in hopes of discouraging it) meant they often kept their family members in a legal state of slavery to Dad.
There were also a few free mulattos, mostly in LA, who had extensive properties inherited from their wealthy French descent fathers. The French had different ideas on this issue from anglo-Americans.