[SoCal Pubbie]

Must have meant 1960.

[Perdogg]

Maybe he is refering to 1968 and 1992 where the winner did not receive a majority of the popular vote (but a plurality) but won the election.

[Verginius Rufus]

Nixon may have had a popular vote plurality in 1960. They count all the Democrat votes in Alabama as Kennedy votes even though the Democrat electors split--what was on the ballots which the voters saw? It's hard to know what percentage of them wanted Kennedy and what percentage favored Harry F. Byrd.

Of all the times when the "loser" of the popular vote won the electoral college vote, his leading opponent was under 50% of the popular vote, with the possible exception of 1876, where Tilden may have had over 50% of the popular vote (hard to know with a lot of voter fraud and vote-suppression going on).