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To: Wonder Warthog
For many years in the early days of the US, only owners of a certain minimum amount of property could vote.

Again, that depended on the state.
23 posted on 09/11/2012 3:10:16 PM PDT by cripplecreek (What does it profit a man if he gains the whole world but loses his soul?)
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To: cripplecreek
"Again, that depended on the state."

Well, of course. Why do you think that matters?? The fact remains that there is a ubiquitous history in the US of "non-voting" classes of citizens, all perfectly Constitutional.

The interference of the Federal government in making a determination as to who can or cannot vote is of VERY recent vintage, and AFAIK, only applies to those states impacted by the "Voting Rights Act" (i.e. the segregated "Old South"). The rest of the states STILL determine who can or cannot vote in all elections (including for federal offices) held within their jurisdiction.

32 posted on 09/11/2012 4:31:19 PM PDT by Wonder Warthog
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