No. And you are (I think) missing my point.
What I was trying to get at is the different time orders implicit in the way human beings experience time linear, serial, irreversible, expressible in "units" (such as hours or years), and inherently "local" and the non-local "time" in which universals live....
Does this make any sense to you?
I suspect you're nibbling around the margins of my argument, but don't really get what I'm talking about.
And let me clear up in advance an objection you might raise on that score: I DO NOT THINK YOU'RE "STUPID!!!"
The question is about the amount of time that the theories of geocentrism and Newtonian mechanics were the accepted theories of the day. All "local" and within recorded history. I do not understand why there would be any confusion about the appropriate "order" of time involved.