If this thing is founded upon a tax or taxes to be accurate, is it Constitutionally allowed that little barry bastard commie can unilaterally exempt groups from this legally passed tax?
Has the Oval Office stinker just given himself unenumerated powers? And what the hell can the Congress do about it?
That is a interesting question. I appreciate it.
You are probably thinking about Obama’s amnesty order with respect to immigration claiming it is an enforcement directive (I still don't understand how that applies to work visas) and now trying it on taxation.
I think the immigration law has a bunch of loopholes in it like issuing visas to those who are politically oppressed to allow him to get away with that. In spite of lots of talk I see no group challenging it legally in court.
The tax law is very complex and specifically specifies all sorts of favored and unfavored groups so I don't believe he could issue an order to the IRS directing them to give refunds to a specific group (contrary to the law) without getting into serious trouble.
Remember, the immigration order was very popular, He poll tested it. And Bush refused to enforce immigration law for the most part, Making up his own tax law wouldnt be explained so easily.