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To: mek1959
The Executive was given authority to uphold the Constitution.

Washington used it.

Jackson would have used it.

Where in the Constitution does it say a State can stop obeying Federal laws?

This discussion was on the meaning of the Declaration, which was universal in nature.

Lincoln was right, Williams is wrong.

23 posted on 04/16/2012 4:36:49 AM PDT by fortheDeclaration (How strangely will the Tools of a Tyrant pervert the plain Meaning of Words!-Sam Adams)
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To: fortheDeclaration

Wrong again.

Point 1 - Is or is not the Constitution an WRITTEN set of delegated authorities? Anything other than a YES answer is wrong and you do not understand authority.

Point 2 - Since the Constitution is a WRITTEN set of delegated powers to the three branches of Government, they were created to define the the LIMITS of a government. Anything other than a “I agree” answer is wrong and you do not understand authority nor the writing and ratification of the Constitution. It’s really that simple.

Point 3 - Since the Constitution is a WRITTEN set of limits on the national government, there is NOTHING written that grants the Executive ANY authority to shoot 400,000 people, suspend habeas corpus, arrest State Legislators, political opponents. Failure to understand this and assent to this makes you a serf at the beckoning of a national government. And Jefferson, Madison, Mason, Henry and most others would be ashamed of how you’ve embraced a inaccurate view of the Declaration and the Constitution.

fortheDeclaration is WRONG (completely and utterly) and Jefferson, Madison, Henry, Mason, Lee are right...along with Dr. Williams.


24 posted on 04/16/2012 4:45:26 AM PDT by mek1959
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To: fortheDeclaration
"Where in the Constitution does it say a State can stop obeying Federal laws?" Oh, I forgot to respond to this...ummm, let me think for 1 nano second on this, that pesky 9th and 10th Amendment. Geeez...do you even read what you write? "Obey" Federal Laws? Have you actually read Article VI and the clause "in pursuance thereof?" Do you have any idea what the Framers and Ratifiers meant by this? The supremacy clause was NOT a broad grant of power to the federal government. Only serfs believe this.
25 posted on 04/16/2012 4:53:16 AM PDT by mek1959
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