"Whether I am correct" was a construction intended to convey the idea that I had not thought this issue through completely and hoped to have a discussion on the question, not that I knew that I was correct and simply chose to humor you (if that is what you thought I meant).
The sheer mass of propaganda directed against 'the Jew' was totally different than the others who got lumped in (I noted your omission of the infirm, retarded, and insane).
My omission of those groups is probably parallel to your omission of communists, Poles, and some other groups that we both left out - an omission that I assume was triggered by the broad scope of the atrocities in Nazi Germany. Can you explain why the murder of more than six million innocent people, primarily entire families, is much worse when genocide and racial purity are part of the motivation than when political purity suffices to identify the victims for systematic mass extermination of "undesirables" and their entire families? [If you'll excuse a little snark, and a long paragraph, "Can you explain why" is a construction that invites you to be not quite the judge and jury but at least the prosecuting/defense attorney.]
I think I've been fairly clear about this. The Orthodox Jewish people do not like the term "holocaust;" they prefer Shoah for the reasons I discussed. After the atrocities they suffered, I respect their wishes on that. Wouldn't you?
Whether or not a crime is "worse" has nothing to do with whether or not we have terms for describing particular crimes. The Shoah was an attempted genocide against the Jewish people in particular, as opposed to the other NAZI crimes against various peoples.
Moreover, the motives within the NAZIS varied by group. For example, the communists were reviled because they were competitors, as they both derived from very similar ideologies. In fact, early NAZI propaganda swore almost perfect alignment with Leninism. So much of the bile directed against Poles and communists was to justify what they were going to do anyway, although they did have a beef against a Polish Jewess in the person of Rosa Luxembourg while Poland was a center of Reform Jewish communist ideology as derived from the Bund der Gerechten. Remember too that "Poles" then controlled much of what had been Prussian territory. There was bad blood over that. Similarly, the flamings against "Gypsies" were directed against those who controlled what had been a corner of pre-WWI Germany.
The commonality for the mass-killing of many of these ethnic groups is that of using the justification of grievance. The ironic (and hypocritical) part is that the Jewish very bankers who financed the early NAZI Party went untouched during the Shoah. Personally, I think there is truth to the quite reasonably established hypothesis that Hitler was the illegitimate scion of a Rothschild.