Second, if it's not a “tax” but a fine instead for not purchasing something, then are ALL fines equal and is there due process of law before the fine is administered?
Third, can every person who receives this fine for “violating the law” challenge their specific fine in the courts and if so how far can it go to be upheld or dismissed?
Forth, if a fine is assessed does the court have the authority to reduce the fine as they do with every other statutory violation?
“if it’s a ‘tax’ for not purchasing something, what are they taxing?”
Existence. Call it the Life Tax.