So you say that if a married man-woman couple opts of anal sex because it's consensual for both of them and it avoids pregnancy, there's no moral objection. OK.
Do you say the same for a married man-man couple? (Again, just asking in order to get an idea of what you think about moral questions.)
69 posted on 02/08/2012 3:37:31 PM PST by Mrs. Don-o
("Justice and judgment are the foundation of His throne." Psalm 89:14)