But I think I was referring to THE AMERICAS, and just Mexico probably had nearer 50 million than not.
I take into consideration the fact that most historians are liberal and have an agenda. But after reading various articles about this subject on the internet, even after decades of contention, it seems most historians believe north of the Rio Grande there was maybe only two or three million pre-Columbus inhabitants. Central America was more conducive to population growth, and of course the Aztecs and Mayas did have cities where populations could build. But fifty million people at one time in Mexico? There’s absolutely no proof of that.