It’s my undestanding it’s being piped to the refineries in Texas for our use.
what do you mean taxpayer’s expense? evidence please.
Why? There's already refineries in the south. How does refining and shipping separated product help, or how is it cost-effective?
Once again, you reveal your ignorance.
The refined products will be consumed in the US of A. We no longer export finished product, except under special circumstances (i.e., under contract, in exchange for crude from Mexico, bunker fuel for ships returning to foreign ports).
All the distributive pipelines in the US market originate on the Gulf Coast, where the refineries are. In order to distribute from northern refineries, a whole new set of distributive pipelines would need to be built.
You can generally count on businesses to make the most efficient economic decisions. Whether you agree with them or not.
I've noticed that the squirrels two streets North are predominantly black this year, but on this side of the bisection they are gray. In other years they've been red here, gray there, or white there and black here.
Oh the humanity.
Who are these econuts who imagine a pipeline bisects anything. For the most part it's going to be 30 feet deep in the ground!
There's already a substantial pipeline into the area. This is an ADDITIONAL PIPELINE.
The great advantage is this will pipe the oil to EXISTING year round refineries.
This is not at tax payer expense.
They are not asking for tax breaks, just permission to spend their money and go to work.
This new oil pipeline goes from western Canada to the US Midwest and then south to the Gulf for several reasons. It gives Canada a market for the vast amounts of oil in its oil sand area. It goes to the Midwest and Gulf because existing US refineries are located there to refine this type of heavy crude. The Gulf refineries are available as Chavez of Venezuela stopped send similar heavy crude up because he hates the US. Little of the refined product would leave the US as we want it and the price is right.