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To: muawiyah

According to which primary sources is it recorded that Sumerian and Babylonian men, as a culture, did not marry until they had determined the fertility of a prospective wife?


153 posted on 08/10/2011 6:58:59 AM PDT by Immerito (Reading Through the Bible in 90 Days)
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To: Immerito
The Sumerians, of course, have ALL the primary sources ~ the Babylonians are latecomers (all things considered).

Do you not recall when you would sit your daughter out on the road to receive the coin?

Hmm. Such a short memory.

Even the Bible ~ a really really really recent document by Sumerian standards, condemns the practice.

154 posted on 08/10/2011 7:18:57 AM PDT by muawiyah
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