It called The United States Constitution.
Article IV
Section 1.
Full Faith and Credit shall be fiven in each State to the public Acts, Records, and judicial Proceedings of every other State. And the Congress may by general Laws prescribe the Manner in which such Acts, Records and Proceedings shall be proved, and the Effect thereof.
If state A defines marriage as being between one man and one woman, while state B defines it as being between one person and his/her love interest de jour, why is it that state A must give full faith and credit to state B’s declaration, but not vice versa?
“And the Congress may by general Laws prescribe the Manner in which such Acts, Records and Proceedings shall be proved, and the Effect thereof.”
You quoted it, but you didn’t get the significance of it.
Congress has exercised its authority under the FF&C: “28 U.S.C. 115, 1738C. Certain acts, records, and proceedings and the effect thereof.
“No State, territory, or possession of the United States, or Indian tribe, shall be required to give effect to any public act, record, or judicial proceeding of any other State, territory, possession, or tribe respecting a relationship between persons of the same sex that is treated as a marriage under the laws of such other State, territory, possession, or tribe, or a right or claim arising from such relationship.”