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Did drug or alcohol prohibition exist under secular law in the Bible? Is there any admonition to prohibit these substances under secular law?

If your answers are "NO" and "NO", then there is no Scriptural justification for prohibition under secular law.

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Repeating my earlier questions:

How do you justify supporting laws based on the New Deal Commerce Clause?

What other sections of the Constitution are you willing to see trampled, aside from the original Commerce Clause and Tenth Amendment?

I would encourage you to look up the meaning of the word secular; "secular law in the Bible" would refer to Biblical references to civil law outside of that which pertains to Jews and Christians.

Regarding Biblical prohibitition of substances, I would recommend a search for the word "drunkenness" in the Bible; biblegateway.com, using the King James version, is a quick and accurate way to do this. After that, I would recommend research on what the "indwelling of the Holy Spirit" means in Reformed Christian theology. That will provide the doctrinal basis for understanding that simultaneous drunkenness and indwelling are incompatible, which is why the Bible and all serious Biblical scholars for 2,000 years have exhorted true believers to refrain from drunkenness. Drunkenness in the Biblical sense would include being "high" on any drug. That being said, we must likewise recall the miracle of Jesus turning water into wine - which was for guests at a wedding to consume. Surely if there was to be a Biblical prohibition we would find one explicitly given; the only verse which can be interpreted as a prohibition, of course, is specifically related to Church elders, namely bishops:

1 Timothy 3:

2 A bishop then must be blameless, the husband of one wife, vigilant, sober, of good behaviour, given to hospitality, apt to teach;

3 Not given to wine, no striker, not greedy of filthy lucre; but patient, not a brawler, not covetous;

and Titus 1:

7 For a bishop must be blameless, as the steward of God; not selfwilled, not soon angry, not given to wine, no striker, not given to filthy lucre;

I hope that you will find these suggestions profitable.

When you refer to "New Deal" and "Commerce Clause" I presume you're referring to the Uniform State Narcotic Act which finalized in 1932 as a model for States. Of course, there is a history of State regulation dating back into the early 1900's, so it can hardly be said that the Federal government "forced" regulation of cannibis on the States. Did the nylon industry want to halt production of hemp ? Perhaps. If we want to produce hemp for ropes with less regulation we should lobby our Congressman.

Regulation of things considered by Congress to be dangerous or bad for society, if enacted by Congress, would be under it's authority given in the General Welfare clause. The General Welfare clause, of course, has been overused ad nauseum. I think most reasonable people would agree that there are cases where laws and regulations under the authority of the General Welfare clause make sense, as many people are acutely aware of terrible wrongs committed by businesses and individuals who do not always "do the right thing" and will use the absence of any specific law as a moral loophole which they employ to commit all sorts of wickedness. But of course, the challenge for Congress is to only enact the minimum laws necessary, at which they have dismally failed, and, IMHO, perhaps 90% of our laws and regulations are unnecessary. I am no supporter of the mess of overregulation we currently have, but certainly recreational drug abuse can rise to a level where it is a detriment to the General Welfare of Americans. Of course the crucial analysis in considering such legislation is in determining the degree of the detriment and thereby be able to create legislation with the smallest possible limitations of personal freedoms. I can't help but think of the example of cases, quite numerous but again I leave the research to the reader, where physicians have abused drugs themselves or were involved in aiding others in various schemes. To eliminate all regulation of drugs is simply impractical, as is to leave this regulation entirely to the individual States, as this can cause undesired though unintended consequences. For example, alcohol purchase is illegal for those under the age of 21, a case of standarization that finalized in 1988. Prior to that I remember cases where the booze runs over state lines for teenagers were fatal all too often, as the young person, inexperienced in knowing their personal limitations in both drinking and driving, returned home with a carload of friends.

Cannibis is perhaps the substance that really gets into the gray area of the General Welfare clause, as the degree of detriment to society as a whole is less clear. Some use it without dramatically negative health effects for many years and make no effort to spread it's use to others; in that ideal case, one could argue that Congress need not act at all regarding it. For other people, it is only the first substance they experiment with, and they wind up moving on to far more destructive drugs, which for some eventually results in wretched misery. We must also remember that alcoholic drinks can also be an introduction to the "partying" scene and could also serve as a "gateway" as it were, and also the more pervasive the "partying" scene is, the more it impacts those parents seeking to keep their children out of it. The fact that both alcohol and cannibis are illegal is far more desireable for such parents, as they would not have the law on their side when setting up guidelines for their children if they were completely legalized.

IMHO, suffice it to say that a) I do not consider the current strategy of prosecuting upstream hard drug dealers and letting individual users of hard drugs continue using without significant prosecution efforts to be very wise since it only decreases supply and not demand, b) harsh laws against abusing hard drugs are wise since this abuse undeniably does result in societal misery (America learned this as a nation around the turn of the last century), c) cannibis is a challenging situation, since it is a "legacy" substance with a history of use. If one wants to evaluate it Biblically, strictly speaking, one would need to be assured that one had control of one's mental faculties while using it in order for it's use to not cause "drunkenness" in the Biblical sense of the word; I think that's where most (though presumably not all) Christians admit that one certainly does not have enough control over one's mind while using it for them to feel comfortable using it. Finally, d) from a purely historical review of the success of nations, it's fairly inescapable that where recreational cannibis use was rampant, it was in parts of the world that up until recently were woefully backward.