I was discussing the Black vote in politics, period. You made a simple declaration that the Black vote was “bought” in 1936 by the Democrats, and that was that, and I emphasized to you several points that it was not as simple as that, and I attempted to analyze how it went from being in play to monolithic, and yet you seem to keep going back to your sole point about 1936.
Frankly, I don’t understand what exactly you’re trying to accomplish here. You dismissed the fact from your own chart about 1956 and claimed that only 61% of Blacks (those that were ALLOWED to vote, mostly in the North, for which I also emphasized) was a monolithic bloc, when that certainly isn’t compared to the 90% it would be later on.
I’ll point out, again, that since more than half of Blacks who should’ve been eligible to vote, but yet were prevented by illegal laws enacted by Democrats, you cannot claim that they overwhelmingly preferred Democrats starting in 1936. Those that could vote in that period mostly lived in urban areas, and many of said cities were controlled by Democrats, who in turn, often dictated to them HOW to vote (indeed, one might say that Black voters were more mainstream in their preferences than White Urban Democrats for a time). Hence, you could probably only make the claim for the overall Black vote not until 1968 or later, when those who wished to vote, could, and without extralegal hindrances. However, by 1968, the country itself and the Black community was hyper-polarized, for which it has never yet recovered from. More to this discussion, of course, but in covering it, you’ve got to see the nuances and intracacies involved.
BTW, I hope you are not seriously claiming Blacks were never intimidated in their voting preferences (including post-1936, nevermind pre-). They have been intimidated by Democrats ever since they got the vote, but the reasons for it and by whom it has been done by has changed, yet it still has been done for the purpose of keeping Democrats in power, no matter the damage done to the Black community.
How do you answer post 62?
You thought that the 1936 vote in those states meant something dramatically important related to the national black vote, why didn’t it mean anything in 1932 and 1948?
When has the black vote not gone overwhelmingly Democrat since they suddenly switched to that party in 1936?