[Old Teufel Hunden]

"Just curious, but where in the Constitution do you find verbiage that allows the USA to intervene in the domestic affairs of a sovereign country simply because we currently get 2% of our oil from them?"

Its right at the beginning in the pre-amble. Where it says the Federal Government is to provide for the common defense. It has nothing to do with how much oil we get from Libya. We have a vested national interest in ensuring that region of the world is somewhat stable. Not only for oil, but for the free flow of our trade.

Using your line of thinking, where in the constitution did it give us the ability to go to war with Germany? They didn't attack us and many countries have declared war on us without us reciprocating. See Osama Bin Laden, Al Qada and the Taliban circa 1998.

[Thermalseeker]

Its right at the beginning in the pre-amble.

Um, the preamble to the Constitution is not law. You need to read a little farther than the preamble, specifically to Article 1, Section 8, Clauses 1 and 11.

Using your line of thinking, where in the constitution did it give us the ability to go to war with Germany? They didn't attack us and many countries have declared war on us without us reciprocating.

They didn't attack us? I think you need to study the history leading up to WWII just a wee bit. German U-boats were sinking US flagged merchant vessels who were supporting Great Britain's war effort long before we declared war on Germany. This was an act of war on the United States. Civil war in Libya is not an act of war against the United States regardless of how much trade we do with the region (which isn't much outside of us buying oil from them that we don't need)