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Amendment 11: The Judicial power of the United States shall not be construed to extend to any suit in law or equity, commenced or prosecuted against one of the United States by Citizens of another State, or by Citizens or Subjects of any Foreign State.

Okay, I'm not the Constitutional scholar that 0 is (should I throw in the < /sarc> tag?), but when I read that amendment, two things come to mind: 1. The justice department suing the state of Arizona is, in fact, a suit in law, and;

2. It is being prosecuted by the U.S. government, in the name of . . . who? The government? Or in the name of the citizens of the United States, who are, in fact, citizens of another state.

So unless a citizen of Arizona brought the suit against the state, how does the justice department justify violating the Consitution . . .

Oh. I just realized the point to which I came.

Never mind.