Several questions come to mind ...
Why hasn’t SCOTUS already asserted Article III, Section II ‘original jurisdiction’ long before now, in the face of 2/3 of the States aggressively filing suit against Obamacare ?
Is this because SCOTUS views this conflict as more of a ‘political’ issue between factions within the Congress and the White House, rather than a fundamental ‘original intent’ issue ?
Contrarily, SCOTUS has a well-established tendency to NOT assert jurisdiction prematurely over a case winding it’s way up from a lower court, preferring to allow for an accumulation of thoughts and preliminary rulings as the issue ‘matures’. What say you ?
WRT Article I, Section VIII enumerated powers and the 10th Amendment reservation of powers to the States: what forum do you propose is appropriate for ‘the States’ to make an assertion pre-empting an Act of Congress ? Twitter ? The LSM ? CNN ?
It would appear that a successful ‘Federal case’, well developed and argued until finally upheld by the SCOTUS, is required to make such an assertion usefully binding on the Congress or some regulatory agency such as the EPA. What say you ?
One man’s opinion.
21stCenturion
Original jurisdiction doesn’t mean the SCOTUS has to hear the case first, it just means they have the ability to hear the case before it works its way through the rest of the courts. There’s nothing in the Constitution that says they have to exercise that ability.
Original jurisdiction is not exclusive jurisdiction. The subordinate courts, when created, were also allowed to share in original jurisdiction, with the superior courts having appellate jurisdiction over them.