Please be kind enough to show me in the Constitution, not some court decision but the Constitution itself, where anything the judicial branch does in any way binds either of the other two co-equal branches of government.
There is a very good reason why the founders neglected to give the Judicial branch ANY enforcement capabilities!
That’s the beauty of Article 3, if you were a big government Federalist. It doesn’t explicitly describe the powers of the judicial branch. But it is inferred indirectly, by the powers granted. Hamilton acknowledged as much in Federalist ...was it 82? Brutus understood it the same way. And then Hamilton and Washington proved it in the first days in operation. Marshall affirmed all of it later. These were all framers. It’s history now.