I assume so (although I will check).
Even if they do, the non-Jewish taxpayers of Britain have been paying for the Beth Din jewish civil law for over 100 years.
I don’t know anything about the Jewish Law. Never heard of it, but if the British Taxpayer is funding that, its no good either.
But to my knowledge, Jews haven’t been beheading or blowing up people to make them convert to Judaism and stoning isn’t an acceptable form of punishment in Israel anymore.
My guess is the British Taxpayer IS paying for the Islamic Sharia Courts, but it would be interesting to find out for certain.
The whole concept of having two separate judicial systems in the same country defies logic. Suppose a civil case arises between a non-Muslim and a Muslim? Then what? Which law takes precedence?
I thought the problem with two separate judicial systems in England was settled by Henry II with Thomas a’ Becket. Becket lost.