No. But he was breaking the law by driving drunk regardless of any ill or good effects of his foray. Should the driver in the real accident and the one in your hypothetical be excused/busted because they were/were not drunk?
The answer is "no". Drunk driving is a crime, whether the drunk is snoring in an idling car at a commuter lot or plowing into a motorcycle group at speed.
Your serve.
The ignorant here won’t answer this question below.
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CHP said he reeked/SMELLED of alcohol and was arrested on suspension of DUI.
Question:
If the Mexican was drunk and or *impaired* by alcohol, could this have been a cause of him losing control of his vehicle, crossing the center line and killing the American bikers?
Yes or no?
Well, of course he should be punished for DUI if he was drunk. I even said that. But the question about who’s at fault for vehicular manslaughter is still an open question.