Since when does the Constitution give the Feds the right to tell a state that it can’t legalize anything, if it decides to.
Since
Gonzalez vs Raich in 2005 on this particular issue.
I thought Justice Thomas got that one right in his dissent, but oh well... He said:
Respondents Diane Monson and Angel Raich use marijuana that has never been bought or sold, that has never crossed state lines, and that has had no demonstrable effect on the national market for marijuana. If Congress can regulate this under the Commerce Clause, then it can regulate virtually anything--and the Federal Government is no longer one of limited and enumerated powers....If the majority is to be taken seriously, the Federal Government may now regulate quilting bees, clothes drives, and potluck suppers throughout the 50 States. This makes a mockery of Madison's assurance to the people of New York that the "powers delegated" to the Federal Government are "few and defined," while those of the States are "numerous and indefinite." The Federalist No. 45, at 313 (J. Madison).
Also notice who voted with the majority on the court in that case to affirm the feds over the states in medical marijuana. It was a Stevens opinion, joined by Ginsburg, Souter, Breyer, and Kennedy. We’re told that medical marijuana is a “liberal” issue but the court’s liberal block voted to restrict it, true to their authoritarian ways.