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To: patlin

“Analogous, although similar in function brought an entirely new meaning to the phrase. The feudal doctrine was ushered out & natural law under the laws of nations was ushered in by the change of phrase.”

BWAHAHAHAHAHAHA!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!

What blows your argument out of the water is that the court used NBS to determine the meaning of NBC. They rejected citizenship by descent and relied totally on birth location.

“It thus clearly appears that, by the law of England for the last three centuries, beginning before the settlement of this country and continuing to the present day, aliens, while residing in the dominions possessed by the Crown of England, were within the allegiance, the obedience, the faith or loyalty, the protection, the power, the jurisdiction of the English Sovereign, and therefore every child born in England of alien parents was a natural-born subject unless the child of an ambassador or other diplomatic agent of a foreign State or of an alien enemy in hostile occupation of the place where the child was born.

III. The same rule was in force in all the English Colonies upon this continent down to the time of the Declaration of Independence, and in the United States afterwards, and continued to prevail under the Constitution as originally established.”

And much later, “Here is nothing to countenance the theory that a general rule of citizenship by blood or descent has displaced in this country the fundamental rule of citizenship by birth within its sovereignty.”

So no, they were not following Vattel. They WERE following English common law.

And if you cannot understand that, then you’ll just have to go on losing. Every time.


911 posted on 10/17/2010 10:02:32 PM PDT by Mr Rogers (When the ass brays, don't reply...)
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To: Mr Rogers
My argument is not blown out of the water, yours is. SHOW THE MONEY QUOTE wherein the court declared WKA to be a natural born citizen and not just a citizen with all the rights of a NBC. You still haven't done that and neither has any other drone.

FYI..."3 centuries of feudal English common law" does not make for precedent when it is clearly recorded in the records of Congress that the founders went well beyond those 300 yrs and brought back the original common law of England at it's founding which was nearly a 1000 years prior to that. But more importantly, it was the Dutch, Swedish & French that were 1st to settle on the soil, NOT the English. The Native Indians didn't speak French because they just happened to like the language. French was the common language of the Dutch who were the 1st settlers. French was the common language of the country prior to the English conquest in the mid 1600’s & was the common language used in schools. Most of the founding fathers as youth were taught in French, including Jefferson, Franklin, Jay & Washington

BWAHAHAHAHAHAHAHAHAHAHAHAHHA..yeah, I can gloat too!

915 posted on 10/17/2010 10:17:14 PM PDT by patlin (Ignorance is Bliss for those who choose to wear rose colored glasses)
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To: Mr Rogers
“It thus clearly appears that, by the law of England for the last three centuries, beginning before the settlement of this country and continuing to the present day, aliens, while residing in the dominions possessed by the Crown of England, were within the allegiance, the obedience, the faith or loyalty, the protection, the power, the jurisdiction of the English Sovereign, and therefore every child born in England of alien parents was a natural-born subject unless the child of an ambassador or other diplomatic agent of a foreign State or of an alien enemy in hostile occupation of the place where the child was born."


"So no, they were not following Vattel. They WERE following English common law."


Do we believe Ms. Rogers or do we believe James Madison?


James Madison Law of Nations and Only one Common Law

To Repeat.

Madison. "The two extremes before us", he said. "are a perfect separation and a perfect incorporation of the 13 States. In the first case they would be independent nations subject to no law, but the law of nations. In the last, they would be mere countries of one entire republic, subject to one common law."


So Rogers, is that "subject to one common law" English common law here that Madison was referring to at the 1787 Constitutional Convention? Gee Rogers, I also see Madison say independent nations are subject to no law but the law of nations.


And if you cannot understand that, then you’ll just have to go on losing. Every time.


A delusional statement.

917 posted on 10/17/2010 10:21:21 PM PDT by Red Steel
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