I'm no Constitutional scholar, so I will defer to those who are, but I'm thinking that former slaves and American Indians made citizens by the 14th Amendment were also made eligible for the Office of President. Once you amend the Constitution, its original language must be read in the context of the amendment, its no longer the original document. I believe that this was what the founders intended.
Once you amend the Constitution, its original language must be read in the context of the amendment, its no longer the original document. I believe that this was what the founders intended.
All you have to do is look at the SCOTUS case of 1952 Kawikita v. United States that says otherwise. Mario Appuzo has added that case to his appeal to the US Supreme Court.
Please show us where the notes of the 14th refer to A2 qualifications of the constitution and that by the passing of that amendment, it also changed the meaning of A2 qualifications. Even the most liberal of progressive lawyers haven't reached as far as you have. That is why they have for almost 5 decades tried to remove/change the language of A2 qualifications. But hey, you believe whatever fantasy you want. The 14th has 3 criterion, birth or naturalization & "subject to the jurisdiction". Now until immigrants no longer have to renounce any foreign allegiance as a requirement to becoming a US citizen, then ‘subject to the jurisdiction’ means exactly what it was intended by the framers of the 14th, a complete political allegiance, as in NOT owing allegiance to any foreign country and for those of us who were born here, it means FROM BIRTH, not from the age of majority when a person makes that choice freely for him/her self because they were told that some ancient form of feudal law made them a lowly subject instead of a free citizen at birth.
No Amendment can reach back in time and alter birth status. They weren't born citizens at all. Therefore, they could never have been natural-born citizens. Their children, however, could be.