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officer may stop a person in a public place for a reasonable period of time when the officer reasonably suspects that such person is committing, is about to commit or has committed a crime

so what did they telepathically determine to be the crime ???

remember too, that *if* one of those guys was a 'prohibited' person, he has 5A protection from being required to state it...

They have to reasonably suspect, not prove...

It’s crystal clear. An officer can suspect a crime with no crime. It’s common sense.

There does not have to be an actual crime for an officer to reasonbly think there might be one and detain and question you.

Can’t understand why it’s so hard to grasp...

Here’s some more:

968.24 - ANNOT.
The potential availability of an innocent explanation does not prohibit an investigative stop. If any reasonable inference of wrongful conduct can be objectively discerned, notwithstanding the existence of other innocent inferences that could be drawn, the officers have the right to temporarily detain the individual for the purpose of inquiry. State v. Limon, 2008 WI App 77, 312 Wis. 2d 174, 751 N.W.2d 877, 07-1578.