All I can do is refer you to post 53 and all of my other posts, I don’t see the question being answered.
Why were blacks the only ones that were grabbed so thoroughly, completely, and permanently, and why did they quit voting like Protestants from that moment forward (except for 1932 when Protestants voted for FDR and blacks stayed Republican)? There is nothing comparable to this.
I’ll leave you to draw your own conclusions.