I know nothing about the law so please help me to understand this.
Certain groups of people are exempted from the health care bill so does that mean that the law does not apply equally to all? Would that deem the law unconstitutional? Then the whole law is kaput?
That is correct.
Would that deem the law unconstitutional?
An objective court would rule that way. No telling how today's courts would rule.
Then the whole law is kaput?
If *any* part of the Obamacare law is struck down, then the *entire* law goes down with it. The authors forget to put in a severance clause. So, YES.