What was his logic when the second half of Romans chapter 1 (his obscure passage) so clearly condemns it? Was Paul having a bad hair day when he wrote it?
You got me. But someone asked him how he could reconcile homosexuality with the Bible and he said "what are you going to look at, an obscure passage from Romans or the Sermon on the Mount?". It was such an uninformed answer, on sooooo many counts, that I could only shake my head, do some facepalm, and realize that Obama didn't have a clue.