“If one is legal and the other illegal, even with a prescription, is the law askew, assuming they both have the same “assault causing” properties?”
I saw the law is not askew, because if you have chronic pain, the benefit of the pain relief exceeds the deficit of the drug’s negatives.
That doesn't answer my question.
To rephrase: “Oxycontin is legal and heroin illegal. Is the law askew in treating the drugs differently, assuming they both have the same negatives?