If the 14th Amendment has not been repealed, then a simple Appeal of the State Law to the Federal Courts should be sufficient to see the offending State Law struck down as UnConstitutional.
See, the problem that EV and I are discussing doesn't really have to do with the States passing Laws which legally disadvantage one class of citizens (the Unborn, or FReepers, or what have you) -- both EV and I would agree that such Laws should be struck down as UnConstitutional.
The problem is, what is the Federal Government supposed to do if a State repeals a State Law which protects a group of citizens -- that is, presuming that we were to overturn Roe vs. Wade and bring State Laws against Abortion back into effect, then what do you do if a State were to repeal its Laws against Abortion? The Congress and the Courts are not authorized to write laws for the States; and there's really nothing to Appeal to the Courts if a State is simply repealing an existing Law.
So, I think that you need to fine-tune your analogy.
Do that, and I'll be happy to discuss your analogy -- including answering ANY "Yes" or "No" Questions with a straightforward "Yes" or "No". (I reserve the right to provide a full explanation for my answer, but I will happily take a "Yes" or "No" stance to start the discussion).
Dear CC, I have had my hands full with other labors, and as I wish to give you a proper answer, I must first get some rest. Please be patient as I think about my response. Thanks, SR.