I am unaware of ANY translation of Matthew 28:19 where the word NAME is pluralized into names.
If God is invisible, if he is not a man, if he is the father, and Jesus is visible, a man, and God’s son, then what does that do to those isolated verses?
I suggest you read the first chapter of the Gospel of St. John. He spells it out very clearly, the in beginning was the Word, the Word was with God and the Word WAS God and then the Word became flesh.
I certainly believe that there are verses that on the surface support trinitarian ideas, but those verses end up contradicting the clear, unambiguous verses.
As P-M and I have both asked, do you belong to some specific religious group or is this all just based on your personal interpretation of Scripture?
I will always strive to stand firm on the clear verses and try to understand the others in light of them rather than take an ambiguous or indirect verse and interpret it regardless of what the clear verses say.
Do you actually do that or do you just pick and choose which ones to stand clear on?
It is evident at the baptism of Jesus when (1) The Son is Baptised, (2) The Father speaks, (3) The Holy Spirit descends.
Believe what you want, Eagle, but you'll not be following the same faith as the Church founded by Jesus Christ if you follow anything other than historic Christian Trinitarianism.
As Wagglebee cited: "...and the Word was God."