Posted on 04/01/2010 8:55:01 AM PDT by pillut48
CJWhodunit.
Now you are arguing that decreased mental judgment caused by over consumption of alcohol should be a legal excuse for your behavior. Under you scenario a man who gets drunk and beats his wife, drives a car and kills someone, or kills someone in a bar fight is not responsible for their actions because of temporarily decreased mental judgment.
IF a woman is so drunk that she passes out, no she cannot give consent in any way. BUT if she is just stupid drunk and has no memory of the event, but is told by others that she screwed some dude at the party, and now THINKS that she was “raped”, who holds responsibility? The drunken man fornicating the drunken woman or do they both hold responsibility? I say a slut acts like a slut and gets what a slut wants.
I generally agree with you but if a couple are drunk out of their minds consent and everyone's recollection of it become ridiculously ambiguous. This is what happens when we semi-legalize fornication. Every time you do it, you are rolling the rape dice. I think we need a written contract for sex. In the meantime, as I said in a prior post, don't drink and party with rapists.
Following you now.
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