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To: EyeGuy

That’s backward from how the founding fathers got it.


15 posted on 03/30/2010 1:29:15 PM PDT by valkyry1
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To: valkyry1

Not at all.

It is a play on their famous rallying cry during the Revolution, but the vote was originally intended only for males of means, that is those that had a stake in the welfare of the country.

Many of the early leaders were also wise enough to be very averse to the idea of a true democracy (Jefferson being a notable exception), in which entitlement-minded rabble could vote themselves all sorts of government favors and programs. SOund familiar?

So no, it is very similar to what the Founders intended.


18 posted on 03/30/2010 1:34:18 PM PDT by EyeGuy
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