From all I have read on this subject, it would appear that NO ONE in America has any standing to question if their political candidates are “Elegible” or not.
“From all I have read on this subject, it would appear that NO ONE in America has any standing to question if their political candidates are “Elegible” or not.”
Here’s my puzzle. Defendants are claiming: “any injury to someone whose president is not eligible is the same injury for all people”
So how come a lawyer can’t just bring a class action suit on behalf of “all people”????? I get notices of all sorts of class action suits on behalf of customers who bought product X between such and such dates. Both the damages and proposed restitution are trivial, e.g., the equivalent of a $10 gift certificate, but that doesn’t seem to stop lawyers from filing these suits and apparently winning occasionally. The point is, standing never seems to be an issue in these so long as there is an identifiable class of people harmed. Any legal beagles here who know the answer to that?