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To: dervish
What according to you is the Hebrew word for "Jew?"

At the time we are talking about, there was no such word as Jew. So a translation of it didn't exist. The word Y'hudi meant "Judean."

So here when the word יְהוּדִ is used for Mordechai who at the end of the Pasuk is called אִישׁ יְמִינִי , from the tribe of Benjamin, what is the meaning of "Y'hudi" there?

I suggest you don't go there because as far as the archaeological record is concerned, much if not all of the Book of Esther is apocryphal (frankly, I think the books of Maccabees are more solidly grounded in history than Esther, especially considering the number of differences in early versions). In all the tablets found the digs at Susa, there is no record of a "Jewish" Queen Esther. The Book of Esther is the one part of the cannon that has not been found at Qumran. So the use of the term in the verse is at least a translation and therefore contemporary to a later date than you imply.

So here when the word יְהוּדִ is used for Mordechai who at the end of the Pasuk is called אִישׁ יְמִינִי , from the tribe of Benjamin, what is the meaning of "Y'hudi" there?

I would say that it means that he was from the nation or region of Y'hudah. By that time the tribe of Binyamin had pretty much been adsorbed.

In the mean time, what does any of this have to do with the time of the Partiarchs?

87 posted on 02/26/2010 1:21:40 AM PST by Carry_Okie (The environment is too complex and too important to manage by central planning.)
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To: Carry_Okie

As I suggested earlier -You SHOULD not go there. Did anyone find God in the archaelogical record?

So far in this thread you have decided that the name we call ourselves is incorrect. Instead you choose to call us by the name our hated conquerer called us. You say that our sacred text is not authentic two days before the holiday we have celebrated for 2500 year and will continue to celebrate after the coming of the Messiah. You tell us that Mordechai was not from the tribe of Benjamin which you incorrectly assert was adsorbed.

You imply that the Arabs have as much claim to the Maarat Hamachpelah as Jews do since you claim they are Ishmaelites descended from Abraham.

Also, you never answered my twice asked proof of that fact. Is it in the archaelogic record that Arabs are Ishmaelites? Where?

I ask you to show respect for my religion.


88 posted on 02/26/2010 8:07:02 AM PST by dervish (I never saw a wild thing sorry for itself)
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