I hope you’re right, friend.
I claim no expertise, but I’m not sure how a foreign visitor can be subject to our laws (stealing, speeding, etc.), but not be under our jusisdiction.
Are you saying that a German citizen who commits a crime by coming to the US illegally is not subject to US jusisdiction under the law?
They can be subject to criminal penalties but they can’t be drafted or serve on juries because they’re not citizens and therefore have no allegiance to the US. At least that’s the interpretation of the jurisdiction clause that many experts believe was meant when it was written in the 1860s.
You're confusing territorial with political jurisdiction, i.e. allegiance.
This was addressed by Ed Meese and John Eastman in their Amicus brief to the Supreme Court in Hamdi.
Read it Here and a top level explanation here.
In particular read the brief where it points out that the construction of the wording of the 14th should not be assumed to be redundant (bottom of page 6, top of page 7). Then you will understand the distinction.