To: publiusF27
But that only becomes relevant if you can find a Supreme Court precedent saying that something that, in the aggregate, substantially affects interstate commerce can be regulated under the commerce clause, even if the activity itself is intrastate and non-commercial. Sez who?
My argument stands on its own, still unrefuted. You've been unable to craft any response to it.
No wonder RP held you in such low regard.
187 posted on
12/26/2009 4:47:43 PM PST by
Mojave
(Ignorant and stoned - Obama's natural constituency.)
To: Mojave
Sez who?
Sez you! Your argument was only three sentences, and the first one relies on the substantial effects/aggregation test. If that's a valid test, there should be a court precedent saying so. Can you think of one? No W's now...
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