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To: dvan

Before the Pilgrims there was Columbus, who arrived here in 1492, followed by other “Spanish” explorers and their support people. 1492, there were still Moors in Spain, so it would not be unreasonable to think that, maybe, some of the Spanish arrivals may have been Muslim???.


20 posted on 12/07/2009 10:31:04 AM PST by Bringbackthedraft (This isn't the America I was raised in. Mrs. Cleaver where are you?)
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To: Bringbackthedraft

Having liberated themselves from the Moors over a period of centuries, I think the Spanish evicted them or forced them to convert to Catholicism. (Now the Muslims are on their way to retaking Iberia.) Everywhere they went, the Spanish were accompanied by zealous Catholic priests, who founded missions. There is no sign of any Muslim influence in the U.S. during Spanish rule.


44 posted on 12/07/2009 4:48:04 PM PST by hellbender
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