To: Alamo-Girl
Whether the conclusion follows from the omission is in the eyes of the beholder.That's implicitly declaring that there's no such thing as an objectively non-sequitur argument.
575 posted on
10/04/2009 1:28:32 PM PDT by
tacticalogic
("Oh bother!" said Pooh, as he chambered his last round.)
To: tacticalogic; betty boop
Not exactly. I'm declaring that "non-sequitir" does not apply to conclusions drawn from omissions. However, a conclusion drawn from something said could indeed be a "non-sequitir" - for instance, "the coffee is ready" does not follow from "the bread is in the oven."
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