Ah,excuse me.Was the final decision made by an individual who was elected by the Scottish people? Or by an individual who was appointed by someone who was elected by the Scottish people? If the answer to either question is "yes" then it was,at least,done in the name of the majority of the Scottish people.
That is not true. Just because you elect someone doesn't mean their every act is done in your name. Are you saying that if the frickin' dimwits pass their health care bill over the wish of the people it is done in the people's name simply because these POS were elected? Your reasoning is very faulty. The scots were raising he** about this before the terrorist slime ball was released, how does that equate to "being done in their name"?