The 1st Amendment of freedom of speech applies to ALL individuals, living ANYWHERE within the US. So why would the 2nd Amendment be somehow diminished in it’s scope of application to ALL individuals as well?
The Bill of Rights placed few limits on individual freedom, but placed the majority of limits on government intrusion on individual freedom and liberty.
It's so easy to confuse the ignorant....public school will ensure continued & growing ignorance and erosion of the Bill of Rights....
Very good, yes, right on point. You know, the Federalist papers hashes out all these points and it’s like every mushy-headed liberal just woke up in a new world of his own making...
By judicial decree. And how has having the federal judiciary defining speech rights within the individual states in the name of the 1st Amendment worked out?
Pornography is protected while prayer in schools is forbidden. The Ten Commandments are torn out of state courthouses by federal order. Pro-life advocates are arrested for praying too near abortuaries. Manger scenes are removed from town squares at the behest of the ACLU.
Let's turn firearms legislation over to the federal judiciary too. What could possibly go wrong?
Especially when the wording is less equivocal than the First.