keeping in mind the court legislated the 18,000 marriages by overturning the will of the people the first time.
While what they did is analogous to outlawing common law marraige with existing marriages, it is not correct to apply that since they are two totally different issues.
The court was telegraphing that this has to be at the ballot box again. IOW those 18,000 marriages will have to be eliminated by popular vote. (or if stats hold true, within 24 months 75% of those relationships will be over)
Is that the divorce rate for homosexuals? Do you have a source for it? Thanks.