That is not the point.
The point is, homosexual men do offend at a high rate (high likelihood of having offended, per individual interviewed). The question of arousal is settled by their copping to the activity.
Their choices may run to older children, i.e. "tweenagers" and teens. I don't have any numbers handy on the subject of children younger than X having contact with homosexual men and women. I can only suppose that numbers exist as part of some study somewhere.
But in law, ephebophilia is a species of paedophilia more broadly defined because, as I explained before, the law does not distinguish between small children and teenagers younger than the age of consent. It's all statutory rape.
So I don't see the point of your saying that homosexuals haven't been studied as an offender group against small children. What is the burden of your argument? To exonerate homosexuality qua homosexuality, and say "homosexuality doesn't matter" when talking about statutory rape?
If anything, backing out the small children who are victims of paedophilia, one is driven to conclude, granting your point arguendo that homosexuals do not offend against young children (suspending disbelief for a moment), then therefore what we are left with is an even higher rate of offense against older children by homosexuals.
You seem to be developing an argument that:
a. Homosexuality is not a driver of "paedophilia" (i.e. sexual relations with young children younger than X)b. Ergo, popular culture errs in blaming homosexuality and homosexuals for the paedophilia problem, and therefore
c. Homosexuality is okay, and not malum in se as a driver of sexual contacts with minors.
You seem to be pushing peds off on NAMBLA in order to exonerate gays. Or do I miss your drift?
“You seem to be pushing peds off on NAMBLA in order to exonerate gays. Or do I miss your drift?”
You do miss my drift. I think your point is, homesexuals are bad and if it is possible to categorize them as child molestors, then even better. You are not looking at statistical evidence in order to understand pedophelia, but as a means of lumping a group (gays) as pedophiles. In order to do this, you label any man who has had sex with an underage boy as a homosexual, even if he has never had sex with an adult male. What statistics do you have that show that homosexuals who have sex with adult males also have sex with male children? Furthermore, how do you count the girls who have been molested by their fathers. The reporting of sexual abuse from a parent is likely to be considerably lower than reports of sexual abuse from a non family member.
My point, in a nutshell is, that I don’t think it is reasonable to call a man homosexual who has no desire to have sex with another adult male. His drive is not for males but for children.