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To: 2ndDivisionVet

If a man has sex with men and also molests boys, then he is a pedophile who is homosexual. If a man is only sexually attracted to pre-pubescent boys then he is a pedophile and the term homosexual isn’t really relevant, anymore than a man who only has sex with a pre-pubescent girl is a heterosexual.


30 posted on 05/25/2009 11:34:03 AM PDT by yazoo (Conservatives believe what they see. Liberals see what they believe.)
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To: yazoo; wagglebee

BS.

Homo = one + sexual = relating to sex. There is nothing pertaining to age within the term.

Contrary to your personal assertion, neither the boy nor tha man meta morphs into a female.

No more SciFi channel for you.


31 posted on 05/25/2009 8:41:53 PM PDT by MrEdd (Heck? Geewhiz Cripes, thats the place where people who don't believe in Gosh think they aint going.)
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To: yazoo

male on male sex is homosexual act. I think you are just playing with symantics with regards to age.

There is no place for priests with that behavior.


33 posted on 05/25/2009 9:01:01 PM PDT by longtermmemmory (VOTE! http://www.senate.gov and http://www.house.gov)
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To: yazoo
If a man is only sexually attracted to pre-pubescent boys then he is a pedophile and the term homosexual isn’t really relevant

That isn't correct. Gay and straight ephebophiles have different drivers, and paedophiles who molest prepubescent children are different again, but it always makes a difference whether the offender is gay or het.

39 posted on 05/26/2009 3:08:31 AM PDT by lentulusgracchus
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