I also meant to mention that in the scriptures where it says that a bishop must only be husband to one wife, it meant it as well. If a man became a bishop because he heard the good news as an adult but was already married, he could only be the husband of one wife. If she passed, he was not to remarry, even though it is perfectly ok for a widower to remarry if he is not a priest. That would seem kind of odd, if marriage and the priesthood were meant to go together. Why would it be denied to one christian and not to the vast number of christians if they were not set apart and asked by God to remain celibate? It is because it was the norm for men to marry young in that time, and Jesus understood that. That is why he led by example of what He desired by remaining single for the kingdom, and Paul pointed it out as well.
“Husband of one wife” is also interpreted to mean that the man could not have been divorced and remarried.
Poor choice of the word "must" in your paraphrase. A more accurate choice would have been the use of "could".
"It behoveth therefore a bishop to be blameless, the husband of one wife, sober, prudent, of good behaviour, chaste, given to hospitality, a teacher," 1 Timothy 3:2
"Of one wife. The meaning is, not that every bishop should have a wife (for St. Paul himself had none), but that no one should be admitted to the holy orders of bishop, priest, or deacon, who had been married more than once." St. Jerome commentary on 1 Timothy 3:2, circa 400 AD.