I'm just trying to understand also.
1) Kurds have been attacking in Iran and fleeing into Iraq for a number of years.
2) At same time, terrorist in Iraq have been attacking US & Iraqi targets and fleeing in Iran & its proxy Syria. (These terrorists have also been supplied by Iran & Syria.)
3) The US did not launch air strikes on Iranian & Syrian soil AND the Iranians did not launch air strikes on Iraqi soil. An unspoken mutual restrain.
Why does Iran think it can NOW unilaterally exercise the right of air strikes across the border into Iraq without the US exercising the same right into Iran & Syria?
The only answer I can come up with is "Obama."
if you get tired of me asking just stop me...LOL..
I guess what I am trying to say is did the kurds (in Iraq) start the attacking?
I do understand what you are saying and I know they are doing it now b/c of Obama...what I am saying is....could their position be justified by the Kurds attacking?