I thought that NSA was not supposed to tap phone calls sent and received by citizens in the USA? Thus, was the tap of an international call? If Harmon made the call or received a call from someone in the USA isn’t the FBI responsible for the wiretap? What am I missing here?
The NSA unambiguously can and does listen in on calls originating outside the United States, without the need of a warrant.
Every country in the world, including Sweden, Switerland and Canada monitor international communications in and out of their countries. It’s only in the United States that anyone makes a fuss about it.
Presumably the agent was in Israel, or if in the US was established as regularly being involved in intelligence work for Israel.
What we are seeing is a civil war within the Democrat party, between the pro-Israel faction and the pro-Islamic faction, with Obama being on the anti-Israel side. The pro-Islamic side's plan is to throw Israel to the wolves over Iran, and they don't want any pro-Israel Democrats to side with the Republicans to protect Israel.
That said, I don't like AIPAC being involved in espionage against the US on US soil, and trying to buy protection from Congress.
A couple points. One being that the NSA is an information provider that can (and does) provide call recordings to the FBI on request of the FBI. Oftentimes the calls have been obtained and stored on a bulk/indiscriminate basis. This is held, under law, to not constitute a "search" or "seizure."
The other point being that Harman may have been recorded on account of the FBI having suspicion of AILPC. Given suspicion and a warrant, the government is in full satisfaction of the Constitution.
If it wasn't clear from the above, the NSA routinely provides information in response to court-approved search warrants.